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Best Quality EC-COUNCIL 312-38 Exam Questions
How much Certified Network Defender Cost
The cost of the Certified Network Defender is $150. For more information related to exam price, please visit the official website as the cost of exams may be subjected to vary county-wise.
Recommended Training
So, let’s focus on the recommended online course for the CND 312-38 validation:
- Certified Network Defender (CND)
The EC-Council offers one course with a corresponding name to help candidates study for the official 312-38 exam. This is the Certified Network Defender or CND training, which is an intensive, hands-on program that focuses on network security and other similar concepts. As a labor-intensive training that aligns with the latest skills, this class has been reorganized to reflect the current job roles and responsibilities of network administrators. It is intended to prepare candidates for advanced roles in this field by confirming their expertise in risk mitigation. With almost half of the course built around hands-on lab lessons, this program will be a vital tool to help you understand the learning objectives including endpoint protection, application & data protection, network perimeter protection, network defense management, and threat prediction among other skills. It’s worth mentioning that this training also includes three demo videos to help candidates gain a good grasp of the test details. These sections include the CND with Eric Reed, CND Meet Your Instructor, and iLabs Demo. Get the complete package today for $1,899 and validate your skills in the best way, and if you are still wondering what the full package contains, find the whole list below:
- Official e-courseware (12-month access);
- Instructor-led training modules (12-month access);
- iLabs (6-month access);
- Certificate of completion;
- Exam voucher.
The EC-Council 312-38 test is the required exam for obtaining the Certified Network Defender certification. This certificate covers the individuals’ skills in detecting, responding, and protecting against threats on networks. The candidates interested in this path are required to demonstrate their understanding of data transfer, software technologies, and network technologies. They should be able to use their skills to evaluate the subject material and understand the specific software that should be automated.
This certification exam evaluates the applicants’ competence in various network defense fundamentals, network security application controls, as well as perimeter appliances, protocols, and VPNs. To succeed in the test, you should also have knowledge of firewall configurations, secure IDS, network traffic signature intricacies, vulnerability, and analysis scanning.
NEW QUESTION 98
Which of the following IP addresses is not reserved for the hosts? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
- A. class D
- B. E-Class
- C. B-
- D. class A
Answer: A,B
NEW QUESTION 99
An organization needs to adhere to the______________rules for safeguarding and protecting the electronically stored health information of employees.
- A. ISEC
- B. PCI DSS
- C. HI PA A
- D. SOX
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 100
Which of the following is an open source implementation of the syslog protocol for Unix?
- A. Unix-syslog
- B. syslog-ng
- C. syslog Unix
- D. syslog-os
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 101
CORRECT TEXT
Fill in the blank with the appropriate term. The ____________ is used for routing voice conversations over the Internet. It is also known by other names such as IP Telephony, Broadband Telephony, etc.
Answer:
Explanation:
VoIP
Explanation:
The Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP) is used for routing of voice conversation over the Internet. The VoIP is also known by other names such as IP Telephony, Broadband Telephony, etc. Analog signals are used in telephones in which the sound is received as electrical pulsation, which is amplified and then carried to a small loudspeaker attached to the other phone, and the call receiver can hear the sound. In VoIP, analog signals are changed into digital signals, which are transmitted on the Internet. VoIP is used to make free phone calls using an Internet connection, and this can be done by using any VoIP software available in the market. There are various modes for making phone calls through the Internet. Some of the important modes are as follows: Through Analog Telephone Adapter (ATA) In this mode, the traditional phone is attached to the computer through AT
A. ATA receives analog signals from the phone and then converts these signals to digital signals. The digital signals are then received by the Internet Service Providers (ISP), and the system is ready to make calls over VoIP. Through IP Phone IP Phones look exactly like the traditional phones, but they differ in that they have RJ-45 Ethernet connectors, instead of RJ-11 phone connectors, for connecting to the computers. Computer To Computer This is the easiest way to use VoIP. For this, we need software, microphone, speakers, sound card and an Internet connection through a cable or a DSL modem. Soft Phones Soft phone is a software application that can be loaded onto a computer and used anywhere in the broadband connectivity area.
NEW QUESTION 102
Larry is a network administrator working for a manufacturing company in Detroit. Larry is responsible for the entire company's network which consists of 300 workstations and 25 servers. After using a hosted email service for a year, the company wants to cut back on costs and bring the email control internal. Larry likes this idea because it will give him more control over email. Larry wants to purchase a server for email but he does not want the server to be on the internal network because this might cause security risks. He decides to place the email server on the outside of the company's internal firewall. There is another firewall connected directly to the Internet that will protect some traffic from accessing the email server; the server will essentially be place between the two firewalls. What logical area is Larry going to place the new email server into?
- A. For security reasons, Larry is going to place the email server in the company's Logical Buffer Zone (LBZ).
- B. Larry is going to put the email server in a hot-server zone.
- C. He is going to place the server in a Demilitarized Zone (DMZ).
- D. He will put the email server in an IPSec zone.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 103
Which of the following representatives in the incident response process are included in the incident response team? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
- A. Human resources
- B. Legal representative
- C. Information security representative
- D. Lead investigator
- E. Technical representative
- F. Sales representative
Answer: A,B,C,D,E
Explanation:
Incident response is a process that detects a problem, determines the cause of an issue, minimizes the damages, resolves the problem, and documents each step of process for future reference. To perform all these roles, an incident response team is needed. The incident response team includes the following representatives who are involved in the incident response process: Lead investigator: The lead investigator is the manager of an incident response team. He is always involved in the creation of an incident response plan. The duties of a lead investigator are as follows:Keep the management updated.Ensure that the incident response moves smoothly and efficiently.Interview and interrogate the suspects and witnesses. Information security representative: The information security representative is a member of the incident response team who alerts the team about possible security safeguards that can impact their ability to respond to an incident. Legal representative: The legal representative is a member of the incident response team who ensures that the process follows all the laws during the response to an incident. Technical representative: Technical representative is a representative of the incident response team. More than one technician can be deployed to an incident. The duties of a technical representative are as follows:Perform forensic backups of the systems that are involved in an incident. Provide more information about the configuration of the network or system. Human resources: Human resources personnel ensure that the policies of the organization are enforced during the incident response process. They suspend access to a suspect if it is needed. Human resources personnel are closely related with the legal representatives and cover up the organization's legal responsibility.
NEW QUESTION 104
Which of the following honeypots provides an attacker access to the real operating system without any restriction and collects a vast amount of information about the attacker?
- A. Honeyd
- B. Low-interaction honeypot
- C. Medium-interaction honeypot
- D. High-interaction honeypot
Answer: D
Explanation:
A high-interaction honeypot offers a vast amount of information about attackers. It provides an attacker access to the real operating system without any restriction. A high-interaction honeypot is a powerful weapon that provides opportunities to discover new tools, to identify new vulnerabilities in the operating system, and to learn how blackhats communicate with one another.
Answer option D is incorrect. A low-interaction honeypot captures limited amounts of information that are mainly transactional data and some limited interactive information. Because of simple design and basic functionality, low-interaction honeypots are easy to install, deploy, maintain, and configure. A low-interaction honeypot detects unauthorized scans or unauthorized connection attempts. A low-interaction honeypot is like a one-way connection, as the honeypot provides services that are limited to listening ports. Its role is very passive and does not alter any traffic. It generates logs or alerts when incoming packets match their patterns.
Answer option B is incorrect. A medium-interaction honeypot offers richer interaction capabilities than a low- interaction honeypot, but does not provide any real underlying operating system target. Installing and configuring a medium-interaction honeypot takes more time than a low-interaction honeypot. It is also more complicated to deploy and maintain as compared to a low-interaction honeypot. A medium-interaction honeypot captures a greater amount of information but comes with greater risk. Answer option C is incorrect. Honeyd is an example of a low-interaction honeypot.
NEW QUESTION 105
Which of the following protocols sends a jam signal when a collision is detected?
- A. CSMA/CD
- B. CSMA
- C. CSMA/CA
- D. ALOHA
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 106
Which of the following UTP cables uses four pairs of twisted cable and provides transmission speeds of up to
16 Mbps?
- A. Category 5e
- B. Category 6
- C. Category 3
- D. Category 5
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
Explanation:
Category 3 type of UTP cable uses four pairs of twisted cable and provides transmission speeds of up to 16 Mbps. They are commonly used in Ethernet networks that operate at the speed of 10 Mbps. A higher speed is also possible by these cables implementing the Fast Ethernet (100Base-T4) specifications. This cable is used mainly for telephone systems.
Answer option C is incorrect. This category of UTP cable is the most commonly used cable in present day networks. It consists of four twisted pairs and is used in those Ethernet networks that run at the speed of 100 Mbps. Category 5 cable can also provide a higher speed of up to 1000 Mbps.
Answer option A is incorrect. It is also known as Category 5 Enhanced cable. Its specification is the same as category 5, but it has some enhanced features and is used in Ethernets that run at the speed of 1000 Mbps.
Answer option D is incorrect. This category of UTP cable is designed to support high-speed networks that run at the speed of 1000 Mbps. It consists of four pairs of wire and uses all of them for data transmission. Category
6 provides more than twice the speed of Category 5e, but is also more expensive.
NEW QUESTION 107
Which of the following statement holds true in terms of containers?
- A. Each container runs in its own OS
- B. Container is fully isolated; hence, more secure
- C. Container requires more memory space
- D. Process-level isolation happens; a container in hence less secure
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 108
CORRECT TEXT
Fill in the blank with the appropriate word. The ____________________risk analysis process analyzes the effect of a risk event deriving a numerical value.
Answer:
Explanation:
quantitative
Explanation:
Quantitative risk analysis is a process to assess the probability of achieving particular project objectives, to quantify the effect of risks on the whole project objective, and to prioritize the risks based on the impact to the overall project risk. The quantitative risk analysis process analyzes the effect of a risk event deriving a numerical value. It also presents a quantitative approach to build decisions in the presence of uncertainty. The inputs for quantitative risk analysis are as follows: Organizational process assets Project scope statement Risk management plan Risk register Project management plan
NEW QUESTION 109
Which of the following steps will NOT make a server fault tolerant? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. (Choose two.)
- A. Implementing cluster servers' facility
- B. Adding one more same sized disk as mirror on the server
- C. Adding a second power supply unit
- D. Performing regular backup of the server
- E. Encrypting confidential data stored on the server
Answer: D,E
Explanation:
Encrypting confidential data stored on the server and performing regular backup will not make the server fault tolerant.
Fault tolerance is the ability to continue work when a hardware failure occurs on a system. A fault-tolerant system is designed from the ground up for reliability by building multiples of all critical components, such as CPUs, memories, disks and power supplies into the same computer. In the event one component fails, another takes over without skipping a beat.
Answer options A, C, and D are incorrect. The following steps will make the server fault tolerant:
Adding a second power supply unit
Adding one more same sized disk as a mirror on the server implementing cluster servers facility
NEW QUESTION 110
Network security is the specialist area, which consists of the provisions and policies adopted by the Network
Administrator to prevent and monitor unauthorized access, misuse, modification, or denial of the computer
network and network-accessible resources. For which of the following reasons is network security needed?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
- A. To protect private information on the Internet
- B. To protect information from unwanted editing, accidentally or intentionally by unauthorized users
- C. To prevent a user from sending a message to another user with the name of a third person
- D. To protect information from loss and deliver it to its destination properly
Answer: A,B,C,D
Explanation:
Network security is needed for the following reasons:
To protect private information on the Internet
To protect information from unwanted editing, accidentally or intentionally by unauthorized users
To protect information from loss and deliver it to its destination properly
To prevent a user from sending a message to another user with the name of a third person
NEW QUESTION 111
Which of the following refers to the exploitation of a valid computer session to gain unauthorized access to information or services in a computer system?
- A. Phishing
- B. Smurf
- C. Session hijacking
- D. Spoofing
Answer: C
Explanation:
Session hijacking refers to the exploitation of a valid computer session to gain unauthorized access to information or services in a computer system. In particular, it is used to refer to the theft of a magic cookie used to authenticate a user to a remote server. It has particular relevance to Web developers, as the HTTP cookies used to maintain a session on many Web sites can be easily stolen by an attacker using an intermediary computer or with access to the saved cookies on the victim's computer (see HTTP cookie theft).TCP session hijacking is when a hacker takes over a TCP session between two machines. Since most authentication only occurs at the start of a TCP session, this allows the hacker to gain access to a machine. Answer option A is incorrect. Spoofing is a technique that makes a transmission appear to have come from an authentic source by forging the IP address, email address, caller ID, etc. In IP spoofing, a hacker modifies packet headers by using someone else's IP address to hide his identity. However, spoofing cannot be used while surfing the Internet, chatting on-line, etc. because forging the source IP address causes the responses to be misdirected. Answer option B is incorrect. Smurf is an attack that generates significant computer network traffic on a victim network. This is a type of denial-of-service attack that floods a target system via spoofed broadcast ping messages. In such attacks, a perpetrator sends a large amount of ICMP echo request (ping) traffic to IP broadcast addresses, all of which have a spoofed source IP address of the intended victim. If the routing device delivering traffic to those broadcast addresses delivers the IP broadcast to all hosts, most hosts on that IP network will take the ICMP echo request and reply to it with an echo reply, which multiplies the traffic by the number of hosts responding. Answer option D is incorrect. Phishing is a type of scam that entices a user to disclose personal information such as social security number, bank account details, or credit card number. An example of phishing attack is a fraudulent e-mail that appears to come from a user's bank asking to change his online banking password. When the user clicks the link available on the e-mail, it directs him to a phishing site which replicates the original bank site. The phishing site lures the user to provide his personal information.
NEW QUESTION 112
Which of the following fields in the IPv6 header is decremented by 1 for each router that forwards the packet?
- A. Next header
- B. Hop limit
- C. Traffic class
- D. Flow label
Answer: B
Explanation:
The hop limit field in the IPv6 header is decremented by 1 for each router that forwards a packet.
The packet is discarded when the hop limit field reaches zero.
Answer option B is incorrect. Next header is an 8-bit field that specifies the next encapsulated
protocol.
Answer option A is incorrect. Flow label is a 20-bit field that is used for specifying special router
handling from source to destination for a sequence of packets.
Answer option C is incorrect. Traffic class is an 8-bit field that specifies the Internet traffic priority
delivery value.
NEW QUESTION 113
John is a network administrator and is monitoring his network traffic with the help of Wireshark. He suspects that someone from outside is making a TCP OS fingerprinting attempt on his organization's network. Which of the following Wireshark filter(s) will he use to locate the TCP OS fingerprinting attempt?
- A. Tcp.flags=0x00
- B. Tcp.options.wscale_val==20
- C. Tcp.flags==0x2b
- D. Tcp.options.mss_val<1460
Answer: A,C,D
NEW QUESTION 114
CORRECT TEXT
Fill in the blank with the appropriate term. A ______________ is a set of tools that take Administrative control of a computer system without authorization by the computer owners and/or legitimate managers.
Answer:
Explanation:
rootkit
Explanation:
A rootkit is a set of tools that take Administrative control of a computer system without
authorization by the computer owners and/or legitimate managers. A rootkit requires root access
to be installed in the Linux operating system, but once installed, the attacker can get root access
at any time. Rootkits have the following features:
They allow an attacker to run packet sniffers secretly to capture passwords.
They allow an attacker to set a Trojan into the operating system and thus open a backdoor for
anytime access.
They allow an attacker to replace utility programs that can be used to detect the attacker's activity.
They provide utilities for installing Trojans with the same attributes as legitimate programs.
NEW QUESTION 115
Which of the following is used in conjunction with smoke detectors and fire alarm systems to improve and increase public safety?
- A. Fire suppression system
- B. Gaseous emission system
- C. Fire sprinkler
- D. Gaseous fire suppression
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 116
Which of the following standards is approved by IEEE-SA for wireless personal area networks?
- A. 802.16
- B. 802.15
- C. 802.1
- D. 802.11a
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 117
You are a professional Computer Hacking forensic investigator. You have been called to collect evidences of buffer overflow and cookie snooping attacks. Which of the following logs will you review to accomplish the task? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
- A. Event logs
- B. Program logs
- C. Web server logs
- D. System logs
Answer: A,B,D
Explanation:
Explanation
Explanation:
Evidences of buffer overflow and cookie snooping attacks can be traced from system logs, event logs, and program logs, depending on the type of overflow or cookie snooping attack executed and the error recovery method used by the hacker.
Answer option B is incorrect. Web server logs are used to investigate cross-site scripting attacks.
NEW QUESTION 118
John works as an Incident manager for TechWorld Inc. His task is to set up a wireless network for his organization. For this, he needs to decide the appropriate devices and policies required to set up the network. Which of the following phases of the incident handling process will help him accomplish the task?
- A. Containment
- B. Eradication
- C. Recovery
- D. Preparation
Answer: D
Explanation:
Preparation is the first step in the incident handling process. It includes processes like backing up copies of all key data on a regular basis, monitoring and updating software on a regular basis, and creating and implementing a documented security policy. To apply this step a documented security policy is formulated that outlines the responses to various incidents, as a reliable set of instructions during the time of an incident. The following list contains items that the incident handler should maintain in the preparation phase i.e. before an incident occurs: Establish applicable policies Build relationships with key players Build response kit Create incident checklists Establish communication plan Perform threat modeling Build an incident response team Practice the demo incidents Answer option A is incorrect. The Containment phase of the Incident handling process is responsible for supporting and building up the incident combating process. It ensures the stability of the system and also confirms that the incident does not get any worse. The Containment phase includes the process of preventing further contamination of the system or network, and preserving the evidence of the contamination. Answer option D is incorrect. The Eradication phase of the Incident handling process involves the cleaning-up of the identified harmful incidents from the system. It includes the analyzing of the information that has been gathered for determining how the attack was committed. To prevent the incident from happening again, it is vital to recognize how it was conceded out so that a prevention technique is applied. Answer option B is incorrect. Recovery is the fifth step of the incident handling process. In this phase, the Incident Handler places the system back into the working environment. In the recovery phase the Incident Handler also works with the questions to validate that the system recovery is successful. This involves testing the system to make sure that all the processes and functions are working normal. The Incident Handler also monitors the system to make sure that the systems are not compromised again. It looks for additional signs of attack.
NEW QUESTION 119
Which of the following OSI layers formats and encrypts data to be sent across the network?
- A. Presentation layer
- B. Transport layer
- C. Physical layer
- D. Network layer
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 120
Fill in the blank with the appropriate word. A ______________ policy is defined as the document that describes
the scope of an organization's security requirements.
Answer:
Explanation:
security
Explanation:
A security policy is defined as the document that describes the scope of an organization's security
requirements. Information security policies are usually documented in one or more information security policy
documents. The policy includes the assets that are to be protected. It also provides security solutions to
provide necessary protection against the security threats.
NEW QUESTION 121
Which of the following OSI layers formats and encrypts data to be sent across the network?
- A. Presentation layer
- B. Transport layer
- C. Physical layer
- D. Network layer
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 122
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