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NEW QUESTION # 68
Which type of data exfiltration technique encodes data in outbound DNS requests to specific servers and can be stopped by Cisco Umbrella?
- A. DNS tunneling
- B. DNS flood attack
- C. DNS hijacking
- D. cache poisoning
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 69
What is the function of Cisco Cloudlock for data security?
- A. data loss prevention
- B. detects anomalies
- C. controls malicious cloud apps
- D. user and entity behavior analytics
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 70
An administrator configures a Cisco WSA to receive redirected traffic over ports 80 and 443. The organization requires that a network device with specific WSA integration capabilities be configured to send the traffic to the WSA to proxy the requests and increase visibility, while making this invisible to the users. What must be done on the Cisco WSA to support these requirements?
- A. Configure active traffic redirection using WPAD in the Cisco WSA and on the network device
- B. Configure transparent traffic redirection using WCCP in the Cisco WSA and on the network device
- C. Use the Layer 4 setting in the Cisco WSA to receive explicit forward requests from the network device
- D. Use PAC keys to allow only the required network devices to send the traffic to the Cisco WSA
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 71
In which two ways does Easy Connect help control network access when used with Cisco TrustSec? (Choose two)
- A. It creates a dashboard in Cisco ISE that provides full visibility of all connected endpoints.
- B. It allows for managed endpoints that authenticate to AD to be mapped to Security Groups (PassiveID).
- C. It integrates with third-party products to provide better visibility throughout the network.
- D. It allows multiple security products to share information and work together to enhance security posture in the network.
- E. It allows for the assignment of Security Group Tags and does not require 802.1x to be configured on the switch or the endpoint.
Answer: B,E
Explanation:
Easy Connect simplifies network access control and segmentation by allowing the assignment of Security Group Tags to endpoints without requiring 802.1X on those endpoints, whether using wired or wireless connectivity. Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/solutions/collateral/enterprise-networks/trustsec/trustsec-witheasy-connect-configuration-guide.pdf Group Tags to endpoints without requiring 802.1X on those endpoints, whether using wired or wireless connectivity.
Easy Connect simplifies network access control and segmentation by allowing the assignment of Security Group Tags to endpoints without requiring 802.1X on those endpoints, whether using wired or wireless connectivity. Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/solutions/collateral/enterprise-networks/trustsec/trustsec-witheasy-connect-configuration-guide.pdf
NEW QUESTION # 72
Which cloud model is a collaborative effort where infrastructure is shared and jointly accessed by several organizations from a specific group?
- A. Community
- B. Private
- C. Public
- D. Hybrid
Answer: A
Explanation:
ExplanationCommunity Cloud allows system and services to be accessible by group of organizations. It shares theinfrastructure between several organizations from a specific community. It may be managed internally byorganizations or by the third-party.
NEW QUESTION # 73
An engineer notices traffic interruption on the network. Upon further investigation, it is learned that broadcast packets have been flooding the network. What must be configured, based on a predefined threshold, to address this issue?
- A. embedded event monitoring
- B. Storm Control
- C. access control lists
- D. Bridge Protocol Data Unit guard
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/eem/command/eem-cr-book/eem-cr-e1.html
NEW QUESTION # 74
An organization is using Cisco Firepower and Cisco Meraki MX for network security and needs to centrally manage cloud policies across these platforms. Which software should be used to accomplish this goal?
- A. Cisco Configuration Professional
- B. Cisco Secureworks
- C. Cisco DNA Center
- D. Cisco Defense Orchestrator
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation Explanation Cisco Defense Orchestrator is a cloud-based management solution that allows you to manage security policies and device configurations with ease across multiple Cisco and cloud-native security platforms. Cisco Defense Orchestrator features: .... Management of hybrid environments: Managing a mix of firewalls running the ASA, FTD, and Meraki MX software is now easy, with the ability to share policy elements across platforms. Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/security/defense-orchestrator/datasheet-c78- 736847.html Explanation Cisco Defense Orchestrator is a cloud-based management solution that allows you to manage security policies and device configurations with ease across multiple Cisco and cloud-native security platforms.
Cisco Defense Orchestrator features:
....
Management of hybrid environments: Managing a mix of firewalls running the ASA, FTD, and Meraki MX software is now easy, with the ability to share policy elements across platforms.
Reference:
Explanation Explanation Cisco Defense Orchestrator is a cloud-based management solution that allows you to manage security policies and device configurations with ease across multiple Cisco and cloud-native security platforms. Cisco Defense Orchestrator features: .... Management of hybrid environments: Managing a mix of firewalls running the ASA, FTD, and Meraki MX software is now easy, with the ability to share policy elements across platforms. Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/security/defense-orchestrator/datasheet-c78- 736847.html
NEW QUESTION # 75
Drag and drop the steps from the left into the correct order on the right to enable AppDynamics to monitor an EC2 instance in Amazon Web Services.
Answer:
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION # 76
What is a difference between GETVPN and iPsec?
- A. GETVPN reduces latency and provides encryption over MPLS without the use of a central hub.
- B. GETVPN is based on IKEv2 and does not support IKEv1.
- C. GETVPN provides key management and security association management.
- D. GETVPN is used to build a VPN network with multiple sites without having to statically configure all devices
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 77
Refer to the exhibit.
A network administrator configures command authorization for the admin5 user. What is the admin5 user able to do on HQ_Router after this configuration?
- A. complete all configurations
- B. complete no configurations
- C. set the IP address of an interface
- D. add subinterfaces
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation The user "admin5" was configured with privilege level 5. In order to allow configuration (enter global configuration mode), we must type this command: (config)#privilege exec level 5 configure terminal Without this command, this user cannot do any configuration. Note: Cisco IOS supports privilege levels from 0 to 15, but the privilege levels which are used by default are privilege level 1 (user EXEC) and level privilege 15 (privilege EXEC)
NEW QUESTION # 78
A small organization needs to reduce the VPN bandwidth load on their headend Cisco ASA in order to ensure that bandwidth is available for VPN users needing access to corporate resources on the10.0.0.0/24 local HQ network. How is this accomplished without adding additional devices to the network?
- A. Configure VPN load balancing to distribute traffic for the 10.0.0.0/24 network,
- B. Use split tunneling to tunnel traffic for the 10.0.0.0/24 network only.
- C. Configure VPN load balancing to send non-corporate traffic straight to the internet.
- D. Use split tunneling to tunnel all traffic except for the 10.0.0.0/24 network.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 79
A network administrator is configuring a rule in an access control policy to block certain URLs and selects the
"Chat and Instant Messaging" category. Which reputation score should be selected to accomplish this goal?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: C
Explanation:
ExplanationWe choose "Chat and Instant Messaging" category in "URL Category":
To block certain URLs we need to choose URL Reputation from 6 to 10.
NEW QUESTION # 80
An attacker needs to perform reconnaissance on a target system to help gain access to it. The system has weak passwords, no encryption on the VPN links, and software bugs on the system's applications. Which vulnerability allows the attacker to see the passwords being transmitted in clear text?
- A. unencrypted links for traffic
- B. weak passwords for authentication
- C. improper file security
- D. software bugs on applications
Answer: A
Explanation:
The vulnerability that allows the attacker to see the passwords being transmitted in clear text is the lack of encryption on the VPN links. Encryption is a process of transforming data into an unreadable form, so that only authorized parties can access it. VPN (Virtual Private Network) is a technology that creates a secure tunnel between two or more devices over a public network, such as the Internet. VPN links should be encrypted to prevent eavesdropping, tampering, or spoofing of the data that passes through them. If the VPN links are not encrypted, an attacker can use a packet sniffer to intercept and read the data, including the passwords, that are sent over the network. This is called a sniffing attack, and it can lead to credential theft, identity spoofing, or data manipulation. Therefore, VPN links should always use strong encryption protocols, such as IPsec or SSL/TLS, to protect the confidentiality and integrity of the data. References := Some possible references are:
* Implementing and Operating Cisco Security Core Technologies (SCOR) v1.0 - Cisco: This is the official course page for the SCOR 350-701 exam, which covers the topics of implementing and operating Cisco security core technologies. It provides the course objectives, outline, duration, and prerequisites. It also offers various learning options, such as instructor-led training, e-learning, and practice exams.
* SCOR 350-701 Official Cert Guide - Cisco Press: This is the official study guide for the SCOR 350-701 exam, written by Omar Santos, a principal engineer at Cisco's Security Research and Operations group.
It covers all the exam topics in depth, with explanations, examples, exercises, and practice questions. It also includes a companion website with online resources, such as videos, quizzes, flashcards, and more.
* Cleartext submission of password - PortSwigger: This is a web security article that explains the vulnerability of transmitting passwords over unencrypted connections, and how to exploit it using Burp Suite, a web application testing tool. It also provides some remediation advice, such as using HTTPS and HSTS to enforce encryption.
* What Are Sniffing Attacks, and How Can You Protect Yourself? - EC-Council: This is a blog post that describes what sniffing attacks are, how they work, and what are the common types and tools of sniffing attacks. It also provides some tips on how to prevent or detect sniffing attacks, such as using encryption, VPN, firewall, IDS, and anti-sniffing software.
* OWASP Application Security FAQ | OWASP Foundation: This is a frequently asked questions page about application security, maintained by the Open Web Application Security Project (OWASP), a non-profit organization that promotes web security awareness and best practices. It covers various topics, such as authentication, authorization, session management, input validation, output encoding, cryptography, error handling, logging, and more.
NEW QUESTION # 81
Refer to the exhibit.
When configuring a remote access VPN solution terminating on the Cisco ASA, an administrator would like to utilize an external token authentication mechanism in conjunction with AAA authentication using machine certificates. Which configuration item must be modified to allow this?
- A. Method
- B. DHCP Servers
- C. SAML Server
- D. Group Policy
Answer: A
Explanation:
In order to use AAA along with an external token authentication mechanism, set the "Method" as "Both" in the Authentication.
NEW QUESTION # 82
A network engineer must migrate a Cisco WSA virtual appliance from one physical host to another physical host by using VMware vMotion. What is a requirement for both physical hosts?
- A. The hosts must have access to the same defined network.
- B. The hosts must run different versions of Cisco AsyncOS.
- C. The hosts must use a different datastore than the virtual appliance.
- D. The hosts must run Cisco AsyncOS 10.0 or greater.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 83
An engineer wants to generate NetFlow records on traffic traversing the Cisco ASA.
Which Cisco ASA command must be used?
- A. ip flow monitor input
- B. ip flow-export destination 1.1.1.1 2055
- C. flow-export destination inside 1.1.1.1 2055
- D. flow exporter
Answer: C
Explanation:
The syntax of this command is: flow-export destination interface-name ipv4-address | hostname udp-port This command is used on Cisco ASA to configure Network Secure Event Logging (NSEL) collector to which NetFlow packets are sent. The destination keyword indicates that a NSEL collector is being configured. + The interface-name argument is the name of the ASA and ASA Services Module interface through which the collector is reached. + The ipv4-address argument is the IP address of the machine running the collector application. + The hostname argument is the destination IP address or name of the collector. + The udp-port argument is the UDP port number to which NetFlow packets are sent. You can configure a maximum of five collectors. After a collector is configured, template records are automatically sent to all configured NSEL collectors. Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/asa/asa84/configuration/guide/asa_84_cli_config/ monitor_nsel.html This command is used on Cisco ASA to configure Network Secure Event Logging (NSEL) collector to which NetFlow packets are sent. The destination keyword indicates that a NSEL collector is being configured.
+ The interface-name argument is the name of the ASA and ASA Services Module interface through which the collector is reached.
+ The ipv4-address argument is the IP address of the machine running the collector application.
+ The hostname argument is the destination IP address or name of the collector.
+ The udp-port argument is the UDP port number to which NetFlow packets are sent.
You can configure a maximum of five collectors. After a collector is configured, template records are automatically sent to all configured NSEL collectors.
Reference:
The syntax of this command is: flow-export destination interface-name ipv4-address | hostname udp-port This command is used on Cisco ASA to configure Network Secure Event Logging (NSEL) collector to which NetFlow packets are sent. The destination keyword indicates that a NSEL collector is being configured. + The interface-name argument is the name of the ASA and ASA Services Module interface through which the collector is reached. + The ipv4-address argument is the IP address of the machine running the collector application. + The hostname argument is the destination IP address or name of the collector. + The udp-port argument is the UDP port number to which NetFlow packets are sent. You can configure a maximum of five collectors. After a collector is configured, template records are automatically sent to all configured NSEL collectors. Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/asa/asa84/configuration/guide/asa_84_cli_config/ monitor_nsel.html
NEW QUESTION # 84
Refer to the exhibit.
What will occur when this device tries to connect to the port?
- A. 802 1X and MAB will both be used and ISE can use policy to determine the access level
- B. 802.1X will not work, but MAB will start and allow the device on the network.
- C. 802.1X will not work and the device will not be allowed network access
- D. 802 1X will work and the device will be allowed on the network
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 85
Drag and drop the concepts from the left onto the correct descriptions on the right
Answer:
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION # 86
Which two tasks allow NetFlow on a Cisco ASA 5500 Series firewall? (Choose two.)
- A. Define a NetFlow collector by using the flow-export command.
- B. Enable NetFlow Version 9.
- C. Apply NetFlow Exporter to the outside interface in the inbound direction.
- D. Create a class map to match interesting traffic.
- E. Create an ACL to allow UDP traffic on port 9996.
Answer: A,C
NEW QUESTION # 87
Which statement describes a traffic profile on a Cisco Next Generation Intrusion Prevention System?
- A. It defines a traffic baseline for traffic anomaly deduction.
- B. It allows traffic if it does not meet the profile.
- C. It inspects hosts that meet the profile with more intrusion rules.
- D. It blocks traffic if it does not meet the profile.
Answer: A
Explanation:
A traffic profile is a graph of network traffic based on connection data collected over a profiling time window (PTW). This measurement presumably represents normal network traffic. After the learning period, you can detect abnormal network traffic by evaluating new traffic against your profile. You can also set up inactive periods in traffic profile to exclude data that does not reflect normal network behavior. You can use traffic profiles to write correlation rules that trigger when the traffic deviates from the profile by a certain threshold or standard deviation. This way, you can identify and respond to potential attacks or security policy violations that cause traffic anomalies. References := Some possible references are:
* Firepower Management Center Configuration Guide, Version 6.0 - Traffic Profiling
* Cisco Next-Generation Intrusion Prevention System (NGIPS)
* Which statement describes a traffic profile on a Cisco Next Generation Intrusion Prevention System?
NEW QUESTION # 88
When web policies are configured in Cisco Umbrella, what provides the ability to ensure that domains are blocked when they host malware, command and control, phishing, and more threats?
- A. File Analysis
- B. Security Category Blocking
- C. Application Control
- D. Content Category Blocking
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference: https://support.umbrella.com/hc/en-us/articles/115004563666-Understanding-Security-Categories
NEW QUESTION # 89
What is the process of performing automated static and dynamic analysis of files against preloaded behavioral indicators for threat analysis?
- A. advanced sandboxing
- B. point-in-time checks
- C. advanced scanning
- D. deep visibility scan
Answer: A
Explanation:
The process of performing automated static and dynamic analysis of files against preloaded behavioral indicators for threat analysis is called advanced sandboxing. Advanced sandboxing is a feature of Cisco Secure Malware Analytics (Threat Grid), which is a cloud-based or on-premises solution that analyzes the behavior of suspicious files and URLs. Advanced sandboxing uses a combination of static and dynamic analysis techniques to examine the files against more than 700 behavioral indicators, such as registry changes, network connections, file modifications, and process injections. These indicators help to uncover stealthy and sophisticated threats, and provide the security team with detailed reports and actionable intelligence. Advanced sandboxing also integrates with other Cisco security products, such as AMP, Firepower, and Email Security, to provide comprehensive malware protection across the network. Advanced sandboxing is different from other options, such as deep visibility scan, point-in-time checks, and advanced scanning, which are not specific processes or features of Cisco Secure Malware Analytics. Deep visibility scan is a generic term that refers to the ability to inspect network traffic and files for malicious activity. Point-in-time checks are periodic scans that detect malware at a specific moment, but do not provide continuous analysis or retrospective security.
Advanced scanning is also a generic term that can refer to any scanning technique that goes beyond basic signature-based detection, such as heuristic analysis, machine learning, or behavioral analysis. References := Some possible references are:
* Cisco Secure Malware Analytics (Threat Grid)
* Malware Protection - Cisco AMP Advanced Malware Protection
* Cisco Secure Malware Analytics Data Sheet
NEW QUESTION # 90
Refer to the exhibit.
Which command was used to display this output?
- A. show dot1x interface gi1/0/12
- B. show dot1x all summary
- C. show dot1x all
- D. show dot1x
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 91
An organization is trying to improve their Defense in Depth by blocking malicious destinations prior to a connection being established. The solution must be able to block certain applications from being used within the network Which product should be used to accomplish this goal?
- A. AMP
- B. ISE
- C. Cisco Firepower
- D. Cisco Umbrella
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
NEW QUESTION # 92
An engineer is trying to decide whether to use Cisco Umbrella, Cisco CloudLock, Cisco Stealthwatch, or Cisco AppDynamics Cloud Monitoring for visibility into data transfers as well as protection against data exfiltration Which solution best meets these requirements?
- A. Cisco CloudLock
- B. Cisco AppDynamics Cloud Monitoring
- C. Cisco Stealthwatch
- D. Cisco Umbrella
Answer: A
Explanation:
Cisco CloudLock is a cloud-native cloud access security broker (CASB) that helps you move to the cloud safely. It protects your cloud users, data, and apps. CloudLock's simple, open, and automated approach uses APIs to manage the risks in your cloud app ecosystem. With CloudLock you can more easily combat data breaches while meeting compliance regulations1.
Cisco CloudLock provides the following features that meet the requirements of visibility into data transfers as well as protection against data exfiltration:
* User security: Cloudlock uses advanced machine learning algorithms to detect anomalies based on multiple factors. It also identifies activities outside allowed countries and spots actions that seem to take place at impossible speeds across distances1.
* Data security: Cloudlock's data loss prevention (DLP) technology continuously monitors cloud environments to detect and secure sensitive information. It provides countless out-of-the-box policies as well as highly tunable custom policies. It also supports inline and out-of-band data inspection and blocking capabilities to protect sensitive data12.
* App security: The Cloudlock Apps Firewall discovers and controls cloud apps connected to your corporate environment. You can see a crowd-sourced Community Trust Rating for individual apps, and you can ban or allowlist them based on risk1.
The other solutions do not provide the same level of visibility and protection as Cisco CloudLock:
* Cisco Umbrella is a cloud-delivered network security service that provides DNS-layer security, secure web gateway, cloud-delivered firewall, cloud access security broker, and threat intelligence3. It does not offer data security features such as DLP, data inspection, and data blocking4.
* Cisco AppDynamics Cloud Monitoring is a cloud-native application performance management solution that helps you monitor, troubleshoot, and optimize your cloud applications. It does not offer user security, data security, or app security features as a CASB solution.
* Cisco Stealthwatch is a network traffic analysis solution that provides visibility and threat detection across your network, endpoints, and cloud. It does not offer data security features such as DLP, data inspection, and data blocking.
References: 3: Cisco Umbrella Packages - Cisco Umbrella 1: Cisco Cloudlock - Cisco 2: Cisco Cloudlock Cisco Cloudlock: Secure Cloud Data 4: Easy to Deploy & Simple to Manage CASB Solution - Cisco Umbrella: Cisco AppDynamics Cloud Monitoring : Cisco Stealthwatch - Cisco
NEW QUESTION # 93
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