Reliable 250-605 Dumps Questions Available as Web-Based Practice Test Engine [Q65-Q85]

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Reliable 250-605 Dumps Questions Available as Web-Based Practice Test Engine

Correct and Up-to-date Symantec 250-605 BrainDumps

NEW QUESTION # 65
What two actions can be performed from the SEDR Management Console to respond to an active threat?
(Choose two)

  • A. Configure new SEP install packages
  • B. Disconnect the endpoint from all external communications
  • C. Reassign the user to a different SEP group
  • D. Kill a malicious process on a target endpoint

Answer: B,D


NEW QUESTION # 66
Which two sections of SEPM are useful for real-time monitoring of endpoint security activity?
(Choose two)

  • A. Home > Summary
  • B. Reports > Quick Reports
  • C. Monitors > Logs
  • D. Admin > Servers

Answer: A,C


NEW QUESTION # 67
Which two functions are supported in the SEDR Management Console?
(Choose two)

  • A. Schedule OS patch updates
  • B. Policy deployment to SEP clients
  • C. Search endpoint activity recorder logs
  • D. Review and triage of threat incidents

Answer: C,D


NEW QUESTION # 68
What is a common use case for implementing System Lockdown in a production environment?

  • A. Ensuring that only business-critical applications are executed
  • B. Testing new virus definitions
  • C. Temporarily blocking traffic to external email servers
  • D. Accelerating LiveUpdate download speed

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 69
During a successful integration between SEDR and SEPM, which two data streams are shared to enhance EDR functionality?
(Choose two)

  • A. Patch deployment schedules
  • B. Telemetry data and event metadata
  • C. Policy compliance violations
  • D. Endpoint scan logs

Answer: B,D


NEW QUESTION # 70
Which two benefits are gained by deploying Group Update Providers in distributed networks?
(Choose two)

  • A. Decreased SEPM CPU utilization
  • B. Localized content distribution to reduce WAN traffic
  • C. Improved scalability in branch offices without local SEPMs
  • D. Automatic policy rollback during disconnection

Answer: B,C


NEW QUESTION # 71
When configuring the Intrusion Prevention Policy, which two options can be customized per signature?
(Choose two)

  • A. Action taken (e.g., Block, Allow, Log only)
  • B. Policy version rollback delay
  • C. Definition file retention time
  • D. Notification alert generation

Answer: A,D


NEW QUESTION # 72
What must be configured in SEDR to enable integration with Splunk for event analysis?

  • A. SEP Content Replicator
  • B. A syslog forwarding profile
  • C. Network Packet Sniffer
  • D. Custom DNS rules

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 73
Which port must be open on a GUP to allow other clients to request updates?

  • A. 0
  • B. 1
  • C. 2
  • D. 3

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 74
Which function do user-managed certificates serve in the SEDR environment?

  • A. They ensure secure communication between SEDR and external systems
  • B. They store log archives securely
  • C. They replace the default SEP antivirus signature
  • D. They activate administrator roles in SEPM

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 75
What must be done to ensure that SEP clients are protected by Intrusion Prevention rules?

  • A. Assign an Application and Device Control policy
  • B. Enable Stealth Mode in Firewall policy
  • C. Configure the Host Integrity policy with antivirus exclusions
  • D. Apply an Intrusion Prevention Policy to the client group

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 76
What is the correlation engine that allows for faster, confident responses to security incidents?

  • A. Insight
  • B. Skeptic
  • C. SONAR
  • D. Synapse

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 77
What method does the SEP client use to initiate communication with the SEPM by default?

  • A. UDP-based broadcast
  • B. Push communication from SEPM
  • C. Manual synchronization through LiveUpdate
  • D. Client-initiated polling over HTTPS

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 78
Which SEP policy controls the Memory Exploit Mitigation settings?

  • A. Windows Settings > Exploit Mitigation
  • B. Intrusion Prevention Policy
  • C. Virus and Spyware Protection Policy
  • D. Application and Device Control Policy

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 79
Which of the following components is responsible for enforcing policies on an endpoint in the SEP environment?

  • A. SEPM (Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager)
  • B. SEP Client
  • C. Intrusion Prevention System
  • D. LiveUpdate Administrator

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 80
What are two core benefits of SEP's layered security architecture?
(Choose two)

  • A. Combines behavior-based and signature-based detection
  • B. Enables SEP to function without a policy framework
  • C. Improves zero-day threat detection using multiple detection methods
  • D. Reduces the need for definition updates

Answer: A,C


NEW QUESTION # 81
What component of a custom firewall rule specifies whether traffic should be allowed, blocked, or logged?

  • A. Rule inheritance
  • B. Profile type
  • C. Condition priority
  • D. Action setting

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 82
When planning SEDR deployment sizing, what are two key characteristics to evaluate?
(Choose two)

  • A. Average number of incidents generated daily
  • B. Retention requirements for EDR data
  • C. Endpoint operating system versions
  • D. Number of policies in SEP firewall

Answer: A,B


NEW QUESTION # 83
Which tool within SEDR allows analysts to search for specific indicators of compromise (IoCs)?

  • A. SEP Policy Scanner
  • B. Search and Investigate
  • C. Network Threat Analyzer
  • D. Evidence Table

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 84
Which shared Symantec technology enables real-time threat detection and enrichment in SEDR?

  • A. Symantec Brightmail Gateway
  • B. SEP System Lockdown
  • C. Symantec Global Intelligence Network (GIN)
  • D. SEP Auto-Protect

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 85
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